As we all know, each verse must be taken in context and each
time the Greek phrase "ho theos" is used it also must be
understood according to the sentence wherein it is used. For
example, in 2 Corinthians 4:4 Paul (speaking of Satan) said:
"...the god of this world hath blinded their minds..."
Obviously, here the Greek words ho theos do not refer to the
God of heaven. Paul was speaking about the god OF THIS
WORLD, not The Ruler of the universe.
In like manner, when Matthew spoke of Immanuel, the God
WITH US, he spoke of Jesus, not the Father in heaven whom
"no man has ever seen". Jesus was the God who came to be with
(Greek - in the midst of) the people of Israel as opposed to the
God who was not in the midst of the people of Israel. Think
about it for a moment, if Jesus was the God with us, then the
God He prayed to on the Cross was the God not with us.
If Matthew had said that Emmanuel was the name of "the God,"
and left it at that, then Jesus would be the God. However:
Matthew did not say that Emmanuel was the name of the God.
He said that Emmanuel was the name of the God *with* us.
Again in John 20:28 we see that Thomas said about Jesus:
"And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
As was pointed out, the Greek text has the definite article with theos, but
Thomas was not saying Jesus was "the God", rather he said Jesus was
"the God of me" (literally "the God my")
Just as the words "with us" modify the term "the god" in the verse
"Emmanule, the god with us". So does the word "my" modify the
term "the god" when Thomas said Jesus was "the god my".
Jesus is our god, but Jesus also has a Ruler, His Father whom
Jesus refers to as "my God".
"Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to
my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto
my Father, and your Father; and to **my God,** and your God."