THE "BETROTHAL" ONLY ERROR
The "no divorce - no exception" teachers insist that when Jesus said there *was* an exception to the "no divorce" rule it only applied to those Jews DURING THEIR BETROTHAL PERIOD.
Quote: In Jewish law/tradition, the Marriage is in two stages: the Kiddushin (betrothal stage) and Nisu’in (the actual marriage ceremony). In Kiddushin, the man and woman are not yet physically married (Nisu’in) and are not allowed to live together but they are still considered Bride and Groom and are by law full-fledged husband and wife. If, God forbid, the betrothed couple decide not to marry because of fornication, promiscuity that took place before they were betrothed (engaged), according to Jewish law, they are required to divorce. Joseph thought that Mary had committed porneia (fornication)!
However, they are wrong. Jesus explained the lawful exception - He used the word wife - NOT "betrothed wife". In the direct context each time Jesus used the word "wife" it referred to full-fledged husband and "wife".
Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his WIFE let him give her a writing of divorcement:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his WIFE, *saving for* the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit
adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Mat 19:5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his WIFE: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Mat 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your WIVES: but from the beginning it was not so.
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his WIFE, *except* it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
The "no divorce" teachers insist that when Jesus said: "Whosoever shall put away his WIFE..." what He really meant was BETROTHED wife. Well, if Jesus had said "betrothed" wife there would be no problem. But Jesus used exactly the same word (wife Gk Gune) as in the other verses in the same context.
The "no divorce - no exceptions for Christians" teachers are saying that the exception given by Jesus applies only to the Jewish betrothed wife and offer the situation with Joseph and Mary as the proof.
We all know the story - Mary was pregnant and Joseph considered divorcing her for sexual sin. The error is to say that this fact proves that Jesus was only talking about "betrothed" wives - not full fledged wives.
Yes - Joseph could have divorced her BECAUSE IN THE EYES OF THE LAW THEY WERE MARRIED. One cannot divorce someone to whom they are NOT married.
The truth is that Jesus used the word wife without any distinction between betrothed and married. When he said "except for fornication" He was speaking of all wives because they are all married - betrothed or otherwise.
What a huge error - to ignore the context and say that Jesus was speaking about "betrothed" wives *ONLY* in one sentence and full-fledged wives in the next sentence.
And yet that is exactly what the modern day "no divorce - no exception" teachers say that Jesus did. Try and imagine the suffering that Christians with adulterous spouses have been forced to endure by telling them they must remain with people whom God hates. The kind of sexually immoral people whom God personally ordered to be killed. Yes, God hates divorce - but he hates those people who commit sexual immorality infinitely more - that is why He killed them.
And yet the "no divorce EVER" teachers want Christian wives to remain and suffer for years and tens of years with those whom God hates. Locked in a prison of despair! We all know who it is that wants to punish Christians - and he is the source of this incredibly demonic teaching.
Psa 5:5 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity.