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 NOT ONE JOT OR TITLE
  

"NOT ONE JOT OR TITTLE"

Those brethren who demand that we must keep the feast days or dietary laws for salvation always base their conclusion on this verse:

Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled

The question is: What LAW? Is it "the Torah" as they claim?

 

Jesus tells us in the next verse:

 

Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least COMMANDMENTS...

Throughout the Gospels Jesus repeatedly used the word "commandments" to refer to the ten commandments. Not once did He use the word commandments in reference to the entire Torah. For example:

Mat_19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. (Then refers directly to the ten commandments)

Mar_10:19 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honour thy father and mother.

Luk_18:20 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother.

In the specific context of Mat 5:19 (not one jot or tittle) we can see that the emphasis was on the ten commandments:

Mat 5:21 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, *Thou shalt not kill;*

Mat 5:27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, *Thou shalt not commit adultery:*

Mat 5: 33 Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths: * (Taking the name of the Lord in vain)* see commentary below.

Jesus did refer to the Torah in this passage - BUT DID NOT SAY that not a single word of the Torah would pass away - quite to the contrary - He rejected Deut 24:1-2

Mat 5:31 It hath been said, [in Torah] Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:

Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. See Mat 19:7 below in NOTES.

Obviously if Moses said that a man CAN divorce his wife and Jesus said men CANNOT divorce as Moses taught - then part of the Torah has passed away.  Therefore if even one part of the Torah has passed away - it must follow that when Jesus said: "...one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the LAW..." Jesus could not possibly be speaking of the entire Torah when He used the word "LAW" or He would be contradicting Himself. There is only one "law" of which it can be said in its entirety - not one jot or tittle has passed away - the law of the ten commandments written in stone by the finger of God.

That simple logic cannot be refuted by anyone who is honest with the Scriptures.


Harold Kupp

JESUS REJECTS TORAH ON DIVORCE:

MOSES:
Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
Deu 24:2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

JESUS:
Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

Mat 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: **but from the beginning it was not so.**

hk

 
 
 

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